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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

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QUESTION 41
Click the Exhibit button. You are implementing a high availability chassis cluster on an SRX Series device. You would like to manage both devices through the J-Web utility. However, when you try to log in to the second device using SSL HTTP, you receive a message from your Web browser indicating that the message has timed out.

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2014 Latest Pass4sure&Lead2pass Juniper JN0-533 Exam Questions

Vendor: Juniper
Exam Code: JN0-533
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Specialist, FWV (JNCIS-FWV)

QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

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Download Free Juniper JN0-120 PDF and VCE Updated Today

Vendor: Juniper
Exam Code: JN0-120
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Associate, E-series (JNCIA-E)

QUESTION 1
Which type of cable is required to access the router’s console port from a PC?

A.    modem
B.    Ethernet
C.    null modem
D.    straight-through

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
When using a 40 Gbps switch fabric, how much full duplex bandwidth is available to each slot?

A.    1.25 Gbps
B.    1.65 Gbps
C.    2.55 Gbps
D.    5.00 Gbps

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What does the SRP distribute to the line modules when a routing table changes?

A.    updated RIB-Out
B.    link-state information
C.    an incremental update
D.    the complete routing table

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three CLI modes are available on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)

A.    User Exec
B.    Privileged Exec
C.    Super User Exec
D.    Global Configuration
E.    Private Configuration

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
The primary line module has failed and the spare line module is now active. What occurs, by default, when the primary line module returns to an operational status?

A.    The primary line module is inactive for five minutes and then becomes active.
B.    The primary line module is in standby mode, while the spare line module remains active.
C.    The primary line module becomes active immediately and the spare line module becomes inactive.
D.    The primary and spare line modules are active for five minutes, after which time the spare line module becomes inactive.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Where does Layer 2 de-encapsulation occur on the ERX Edge Router?

A.    on the SRP
B.    on the I/O adapter
C.    on the egress line module
D.    on the ingress line module

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which configuration command enables the router for SNMP?

A.    snmp-client
B.    snmp-server
C.    snmp-client enable
D.    snmp-server enable

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which CLI command copies a file called 4-0-0.rel from FTP server userpc to the router?

A.    get 4-0-0.rel userpc:4-0-0.rel
B.    get userpc:4-0-0.rel 4-0-0.rel
C.    copy 4-0-0.rel userpc:4-0-0.rel
D.    copy userpc:4-0-0.rel 4-0-0.rel

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which ERX Edge Router component is responsible for all packet processing and packet forwarding?

A.    I/O adapter
B.    line module
C.    shared memory fabric
D.    switch route processor

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You would like to configure your PC’s IP address of 10.10.0.156 as an FTP host with a username of user and a password of mypass. Which configuration command accomplishes this goal?

A.    host userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
B.    host userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass
C.    hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 ftp user mypass
D.    hostname userpc 10.10.0.156 tftp user mypass

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two parameters are virtual router specific? (Choose two.)

A.    ATM PVC
B.    static routes
C.    IP interfaces
D.    encapsulations

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Beginning with software version 4-0-0.rel, how many virtual routers can be configured on the ERX Edge Router?

A.    32
B.    128
C.    256
D.    1000

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Your ERX router is supporting 100 virtual routers. A specific line module supports IP interfaces in 5 virtual routers.
How many routing tables are maintained on that module?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    5
D.    100

Answer: C

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OFFER Juniper JN0-694 PDF and VCE Full Version

Juniper Networks Certified Support Professional (JNCSP-ENT): JN0-694 Exam
JN0-694 Questions & Answers
Exam Code: JN0-694
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Support Professional (JNCSP-ENT)
Q & A: 50 Q&As

QUESTION 1
Referring to the exhibit, why are the OSPF routes missing from the routing table for this router?
user@router> show ospf database
Area 0.0.0.1
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Router 172.24.255.1 172.24.255.1 0x800000d4 182 0x22 0x59f3 36
Router 172.24.255.2 172.24.255.2 0x800000d4 177 0x22 0x57f2 36
Router *172.24.255.4 172.24.255.4 0x800000dc 176 0x22 0x75fa 72
Network 172.24.124.2 172.24.255.2 0x80000007 177 0x22 0x7957 36
Summary 172.24.13.0 172.24.255.1 0x80000004 2370 0x22 0x3f62 28
Summary 172.24.23.0 172.24.255.1 0x80000002 471 0x22 0xdeb9 28
Summary 172.24.255.1 172.24.255.1 0x800000cb 2037 0x22 0x2bbb 28
Summary 172.24.255.2 172.24.255.2 0x800000cc 487 0x22 0x19ca 28
Summary 172.24.255.3 172.24.255.1 0x80000003 140 0x22 0xb2f9 28
OSPF AS SCOPE link state database
Type ID Adv Rtr Seq Age Opt Cksum Len
Extern *1.47.82.0 172.24.255.4 0x80000002 1037 0x22 0x4225 36
Extern *100.0.0.0 172.24.255.4 0x80000001 2643 0x22 0xfc88 36
user@router> show ospf neighbor
Address Interface State ID Pri Dead
172.24.124.2 ge-0/0/1.0 Full 172.24.255.2 128 36
172.24.124.1 ge-0/0/1.0 Full 172.24.255.1 128 30
user@router> show ospf interface ge-0/0/1.0 extensive
Interface State Area DR ID BDR ID Nbrs
ge-0/0/1.0 PtToPt 0.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 2
Type: P2MP, Address: 172.24.124.4, Mask: 255.255.255.0, MTU: 1500,
Cost: 1
Adj count: 2
Hello: 10, DeaD. 40, ReXmit: 5, Not Stub
Auth type: None
Protection type: None
Topology default (ID 0) -> Cost: 1
A. mismatching OSPF interface type with the neighbor
B. MTU mismatch with the neighbor
C. incorrect IP address configured on the interface
D. no Type 4 LSAs in the OSPF database
Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You notice that there is a problem with the OSPF adjacency between two routers, R1 and R2.
The relevant system logs from R1 are shown in the exhibit.
What would cause this behavior?
Jun 12 02:56:06 R1 rpd[60735]: RPD_OSPF_NBRDOWN: OSPF neighbor
10.50.10.25 (realm
ospf-v2 fe-0/0/4.0 area 0.0.0.0) state changed from Full to Init due to
1WayRcvd (event reason:
neighbor is in one-way mode)
Jun 12 02:59:36 R1 rpd[60735]: RPD_OSPF_NBRUP: OSPF neighbor
10.50.10.25 (realm ospf-v2 fe-0/0/4.0 area 0.0.0.0) state changed from Init to ExStart due to
2WayRcvd (event reason:
neighbor detected this router)
Jun 12 02:59:36 R1 rpd[60735]: RPD_OSPF_NBRUP: OSPF neighbor
10.50.10.25 (realm ospfv2
fe-0/0/4.0 area 0.0.0.0) state changed from Exchange to Full due to
ExchangeDone (event
reason: DBD exchange of slave completed)
A. R2 was dropping R1’s OSPF hello packets.
B. R1 was dropping R2’s OSPF hello packets.
C. R1’s interface went down and came back up.
D. There is an OSPF hello timer mismatch between the two routers.
Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Referring to the exhibit, you are configuring an OSPF network. All OSPF adjacencies come up
and stay stable. But neither R1 nor R2 has the prefix 200.200.200.200/32 in its routing table.
What is causing this problem?
A. R2 does not have the export policy for prefix 200.200.200.200/32.
B. R1 does not have routes to network 172.10.1.0/24.
C. R2 is BDR on both network 172.10.1.0/24 and 172.20.1.0/24.
D. The router ID of R1 is the same as the router ID of R3.
Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency problem between R1 and R2.
Referring to the exhibit, what is causing this OSPF adjacency problem?
A. There is a hello interval mismatch.
B. There is a dead interval mismatch.
C. There is an MTU mismatch.
D. There is an LSA refresh timer mismatch.
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are trying to establish an OSPF adjacency between R1 and R2, but the adjacency does not
establish.
Referring to the exhibit, what is causing the adjacency to fail?
user@R1> show ospf neighbor
Address Interface State ID Pri Dead
10.222.0.2 ge-0/0/1.0 Init 10.222.1.2 128 32
user@R1> show ospf interface detail
Interface State Area DR ID BDR ID Nbrs
ge-0/0/1.0 DR 0.0.0.0 10.222.1.1 0.0.0.0 1
Type: LAN, Address: 10.222.0.1, Mask: 255.255.255.252, MTU: 1500, Cost:
1
DR addr: 10.222.0.1, Priority: 128
Adj count: 0
Hello: 10, DeaD. 40, ReXmit: 5, Not Stub
Auth type: MD5, Active key ID. 10, Start time: 1970 Jan 1 00:00:00 UTCProtection type: None
Topology default (ID 0) -> Cost: 1
lo0.0 DR 0.0.0.0 10.222.1.1 0.0.0.0 0
Type: LAN, Address: 10.222.1.1, Mask: 255.255.255.255, MTU: 65535,
Cost: 0
DR addr: 10.222.1.1, Priority: 128
Adj count: 0
Hello: 10, DeaD. 40, ReXmit: 5, Not Stub
Auth type: None
Protection type: None
Topology default (ID 0) -> Cost: 0
user@R2> show ospf neighbor
user@R2> show ospf interface detail
Interface State Area DR ID BDR ID Nbrs
ge-0/0/1.0 PtToPt 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0
Type: P2P, Address: 10.222.0.2, Mask: 255.255.255.252, MTU: 1500, Cost:
1
Adj count: 0
Hello: 10, DeaD. 40, ReXmit: 5, Not Stub
Auth type: MD5, Active key ID. 10, Start time: 1970 Jan 1 00:00:00 UTC
Protection type: None
Topology default (ID 0) -> Cost: 1
lo0.0 DR 0.0.0.0 10.222.1.2 0.0.0.0 0
Type: LAN, Address: 10.222.1.2, Mask: 255.255.255.255, MTU: 65535,
Cost: 0
DR addr: 10.222.1.2, Priority: 128
Adj count: 0
Hello: 10, DeaD. 40, ReXmit: 5, Not Stub
Auth type: None
Protection
A. The MD5 key ID values are mismatched between R1 and R2.
B. R1 has both family inet and family iso configured on the link toward R2.
C. The IP subnet mask is mismatched between R1 and R2.
D. The interface type is mismatched between R1 and R2.
Answer: D

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[Pdf Dumps] Latest JN0-311 Dumps

WX,Associate (JNCIA-WX): JN0-311 Exam

  • JN0-311 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: JN0-311
  • Exam Name: WX,Associate (JNCIA-WX)
  • Q & A: 102 Q&As

JN0-311 exam is an important Juniper Certification which can test your professional skills. Candidates want to pass the exam successfully to prove their competence. Lead2Pass Juniper technical experts have collected and certified 102 questions and answers of WX,Associate (JNCIA-WX) which are designed to cover the knowledge points of the Planning and Designing Juniper Superdome Server Solutions and enhance candidates’ abilities. With Lead2Pass JN0-311 preparation tests you can pass the WX,Associate (JNCIA-WX) easily, get the Juniper and go further on Juniper career path.

1: Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A.Assign applications to traffic classes.
B.Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C.Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D.Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Correct Answers: A D

2: What is NSC’s functionality?
A.Web caching
B.sequence caching
C.memory-based compression
D.next-generation compression
Correct Answers: B

3: Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A.Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B.Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C.Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D.Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Correct Answers: C

4: Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth allocation? (Choose two.)
A.Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B.Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C.Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D.Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Correct Answers: A B

5: Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC devices? (Choose two.)
A.Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B.Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C.Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D.Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Correct Answers: A D

6: Which two secure remote access methods are available on the WX platforms? (Choose two.)
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.HTTP
Correct Answers: A B

7: Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A.satellite networks
B.low-latency networks
C.long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D.long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Correct Answers: A C

8: Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A.latency and loss
B.compression results
C.traffic (by application)
D.CRC and alignment errors
E.user access (by username)
Correct Answers: A B C

9: What are two ways to view the system log files on a WX device? (Choose two.)
A.Use the CLI and enter show log.
B.Use the CLI and enter show all.
C.Use the CLI and enter show logging.
D.In WebView, choose Admin > Tools > Display System Log.
Correct Answers: A D

10: Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly? (Choose three.)
A.Monitor > Endpoints
B.Acceleration > Endpoints
C.Device Setup > Endpoints
D.Compression > Endpoints
E.Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Correct Answers: A D E

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[Pdf Dumps] Latest JN0-541 Dumps

IDP.Associate (JNCIA-IDP): JN0-541 Exam

  • JN0-541 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: JN0-541
  • Exam Name: IDP.Associate (JNCIA-IDP)
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

Lead2Pass JNCIA JN0-541 exam questions which contain almost 100% correct answers are tested and approved by senior Juniper lecturers and experts. They have been devoting themselves to providing candidates with the best study materials to make sure what they get are valuable. JN0-541 practice tests are written to the highest standards of technical accuracy which can make you succeed in the exam.

1: In order to obtain attack information so that you can create a new attack object definition, you must follow certain steps. Given the following steps, assume you have acquired the attack source code.
a. On target machine, start capturing packets with a protocol analyzer.
b. On sensor, examine scio ccap output.
c. Compile attack code on attacker machine.
d. On sensor, run scio ccap all.
e. On attacker machine, run attack code against target.
What is the correct order for these steps?
A.e, c, d, b, a
B.c, d, a, e, b
C.c, e, b, d, a
D.c, d, e, a, b
Correct Answers: B

2: Which three devices support clustering? (Choose three.)
A.IDP 10
B.IDP 50
C.IDP 200
D.IDP 600
E.IDP 1100
Correct Answers: C D E

3: Which sensor utility is used to decode the contexts of a sequence of packets?
A.netstat
B.scio pcap
C.tcpreplay
D.scio ccap
Correct Answers: D

4: Which sensor command will capture packets on a particular interface?
A.sctop
B.tcpdump
C.netstat
D.tcpreplay
Correct Answers: B

5: Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A virtual circuit is not a forwarding interface.
B.A virtual circuit is a communications path in and out of the sensor.
C.Virtual circuits on a sensor can be listed using the command sctop vc list.
D.In transparent mode, a virtual circuit maps one-to-one with a physical interface.
Correct Answers: B D

6: What does the action “drop packet” instruct the sensor to do?
A.Drop all packets from the attacker’s IP address.
B.Drop the specific session containing the attack pattern.
C.Drop only the specific packet matching the attack object.
D.Drop any packet matching this source IP, destination IP, and service.
Correct Answers: C

7: On a sensor in transparent mode, how many virtual circuits are assigned to a virtual router?
A.1
B.1 or 2
C.2
D.3 or more
Correct Answers: C

8: In IDP Sensor clustering, which port is used to send state synchronization information to other devices in the cluster?
A.eth0
B.eth1
C.eth2
D.console port
Correct Answers: B

9: Which statement is true regarding IDP rule matching on a sensor?
A.Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be processed further.
B.Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object will be processed further.
C.Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, and service will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
D.Each rule in the IDP rule base that matches on the source IP, destination IP, service, and attack object will be processed further, unless the particular rule is terminal.
Correct Answers: C

10: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which SYN protector mode is the IDP using?

A.relay
B.passive
C.protective
D.handshake
Correct Answers: B

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Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam: JN0-562 Exam

  • JN0-562 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: JN0-562
  • Exam Name: Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

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1: You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries. How do you proceed?
A.Enable split tunneling.
B.Disable split tunneling.
C.Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D.Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Correct Answers: D

2: Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A.NIS
B.ACE
C.SAML
D.LDAP
E.SiteMinder
Correct Answers: A B D

3: You create a set of role mapping rules. You select “Merge settings for all assigned roles.” The second role mapping rule has the “Stop processing rules when this rule matches” option selected. A user logs in that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A.This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the configuration.
B.The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging follows the standard merging criteria.
C.The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE’s built-in permissive merging rules.
D.The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined by the second role.
Correct Answers: C

4: When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback addresses are assigned correctly?
A.HOSTS file
B.ARP cache
C.LMHOSTS file
D.local route table
Correct Answers: A

5: What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A.to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B.to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C.to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D.to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Correct Answers: B

6: Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A.roaming session
B.persistent session
C.persistent password caching
D.browser request follow-through
Correct Answers: A

7: Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A.Web Proxy Policies
B.Web Proxy Servers
C.Web Cache Policies
D.Web Passthrough Proxy
Correct Answers: A B

8: Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A.SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B.SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C.SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D.SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Correct Answers: C D

9: You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A.Certificate
B.User Attribute
C.RSA Attributes
D.Group Membership
Correct Answers: A B

10: Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A.behind the Internet firewall
B.internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C.both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D.parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Correct Answers: A

11: What are two reasons for using Network Connect? (Choose two.)
A.When the ability to disable split tunneling is required.
B.When the client will need to redirect traffic based on process name.
C.When the client will use applications with server-initiated connections.
D.When the client will not have administrator privileges on their machines.
Correct Answers: A C

12: What is the minimum information that must be configured by an administrator to create a resource policy? (Choose two.)
A.resource
B.username
C.policy name
D.session timeout
Correct Answers: A C

13: What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A.Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B.ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C.A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D.The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Correct Answers: C D

14: Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A.roaming session
B.persistent session
C.persistent password caching
D.browser request follow-through
Correct Answers: C

15: What does a sign-in policy map users to when browsing a specified URL?
A.A list of possible user roles.
B.Specific resources as stated in resource policies.
C.The URL presents one or more authentication realms to the user for authentication.
D.The login is passed to an authentication server for verification, and an authorization server for user attribute information.
Correct Answers: C

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[Pdf Dumps] Latest JN0-522 Dumps

FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV): JN0-522 Exam

  • JN0-522 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: JN0-522
  • Exam Name: FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV)
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

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1: Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Correct Answers: A B

2: Which ScreenOS CLI commands would be used to enable traffic logging in policy edit mode?
A.set log
B.set logging
C.set traffic-log
D.set policy traffic-log
Correct Answers: A

3: What is the maximum number of custom proposals sent by a ScreenOS device when negotiating IKE Phase 1 or Phase 2?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.6
Correct Answers: C

4: Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can  be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
Correct Answers: B

5: A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone. Both interfaces are addressed and active. The configured policy allows user traffic from the user zone to the FTP server in the servers zone, but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client to the server. What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server’s subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client’s subnet.
Correct Answers: C

6: While looking at your policies using the WebUI, you notice that the green permit policy has turned blue. What would cause this?
A.The policy is currently inactive.
B.The policy is configured to support a MIP.
C.The policy is configured for unidirectional NAT.
D.The policy is currently passing traffic beyond its traffic limits and is in alarm state.
Correct Answers: C

7: Which two steps are required for MIP configuration? (Choose two.)
A.Define the MIP.
B.Define the MIP ports.
C.Configure the MIP policy.
D.Configure the MIP interface.
Correct Answers: A C

8: Which three commands are used to verify that routing is correctly configured? (Choose three.)
A.ping
B.get route
C.trace-route
D.get session
E.get interface
Correct Answers: A B C

9: You are trying to remove an address book entry by going to the Objects > Addresses > List display of the WebUI, but you cannot find the remove option. What would cause this problem?
A.An address book entry can only be deleted from the command line interface. You will need to use the CLI to delete it.
B.The address book entry is misconfigured. You need to correct the address book entry before it will allow you to delete it.
C.You cannot remove an address book entry from this screen. You need to use the delete option found under the management options screen.
D.The address book entry is being used by a policy. You must delete the policy or remove the address book entry from the policy before it can be deleted.
Correct Answers: D

10: Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days, and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Correct Answers: C

11: Click the Exhibit button.
Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP.
In the exhibit, what is true about the configuration of this feature?

A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same ports in the Corporate zone.
Correct Answers: A

12: You enter the following command:
set int e8 dip 5 shift-from 10.1.1.5 1.1.10.2 1.1.10.40
What will be the source IP address of the egress packet for the second user requesting an address from the DIP pool, if the source address of that user is 10.1.1.7?
A.1.1.10.2
B.1.1.10.3
C.1.1.10.4
D.1.1.10.40
Correct Answers: C

13: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why is the packet dropped?
A.interface down
B.route not configured
C.policy not configured
D.denied by policy 1005
Correct Answers: C

14: By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Correct Answers: C

15: What is the default mode for an interface in the trust zone?
A.NAT
B.route
C.Layer 2
D.Layer 3
E.transparent
Correct Answers: A

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[Pdf Dumps] Latest JN0-522 Dumps

FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV): JN0-522 Exam

  • JN0-522 Questions & Answers
  • Exam Code: JN0-522
  • Exam Name: FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV)
  • Q & A: 132 Q&As

1: Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Correct Answers: A B

2: Which ScreenOS CLI commands would be used to enable traffic logging in policy edit mode?
A.set log
B.set logging
C.set traffic-log
D.set policy traffic-log
Correct Answers: A

3: What is the maximum number of custom proposals sent by a ScreenOS device when negotiating IKE Phase 1 or Phase 2?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.6
Correct Answers: C

4: Which statement is correct regarding administrator privileges?
A.Any administrator can change their privileges on an as-needed basis.
B.Administrator privileges can only be established and changed by the root administrator.
C.Administrator privileges can  be established and changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
D.Administrator privileges can only be established by the root and can be changed by the root and all-privilege administrator.
Correct Answers: B

5: A ScreenOS firewall has one interface in the user zone and one interface in the servers zone. Both interfaces are addressed and active. The configured policy allows user traffic from the user zone to the FTP server in the servers zone, but the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client to the server. What is the most likely problem with the firewall?
A.The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server.
B.The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic.
C.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP server’s subnet.
D.The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP client’s subnet.
Correct Answers: C

6: While looking at your policies using the WebUI, you notice that the green permit policy has turned blue. What would cause this?
A.The policy is currently inactive.
B.The policy is configured to support a MIP.
C.The policy is configured for unidirectional NAT.
D.The policy is currently passing traffic beyond its traffic limits and is in alarm state.
Correct Answers: C

7: Which two steps are required for MIP configuration? (Choose two.)
A.Define the MIP.
B.Define the MIP ports.
C.Configure the MIP policy.
D.Configure the MIP interface.
Correct Answers: A C

8: Which three commands are used to verify that routing is correctly configured? (Choose three.)
A.ping
B.get route
C.trace-route
D.get session
E.get interface
Correct Answers: A B C

9: You are trying to remove an address book entry by going to the Objects > Addresses > List display of the WebUI, but you cannot find the remove option. What would cause this problem?
A.An address book entry can only be deleted from the command line interface. You will need to use the CLI to delete it.
B.The address book entry is misconfigured. You need to correct the address book entry before it will allow you to delete it.
C.You cannot remove an address book entry from this screen. You need to use the delete option found under the management options screen.
D.The address book entry is being used by a policy. You must delete the policy or remove the address book entry from the policy before it can be deleted.
Correct Answers: D

10: Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days, and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Correct Answers: C

11: Click the Exhibit button.
Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP.
In the exhibit, what is true about the configuration of this feature?

A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same ports in the Corporate zone.
Correct Answers: A

12: You enter the following command:
set int e8 dip 5 shift-from 10.1.1.5 1.1.10.2 1.1.10.40
What will be the source IP address of the egress packet for the second user requesting an address from the DIP pool, if the source address of that user is 10.1.1.7?
A.1.1.10.2
B.1.1.10.3
C.1.1.10.4
D.1.1.10.40
Correct Answers: C

13: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, why is the packet dropped?

A.interface down
B.route not configured
C.policy not configured
D.denied by policy 1005
Correct Answers: C

14: By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded?
A.NVRAM
B.TFTP server
C.internal flash
D.PCMCIA card
Correct Answers: C

15: What is the default mode for an interface in the trust zone?
A.NAT
B.route
C.Layer 2
D.Layer 3
E.transparent
Correct Answers: A

16: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which interface would be used to forward traffic to host 1.1.7.5?

A.e0/1
B.e0/2
C.e0/3
D.e0/4
Correct Answers: C

17: Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with host D? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A’s subnet already exists.)

A.set route 200.5.5.0/24 interface e0/4
B.set route 143.45.56.0/24 interface e0/4
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
D.set route 200.5.5.0/24 gateway 143.45.56.254 int e0/4
Correct Answers: C

18: Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to add services to an existing multi-cell policy?
A.set service <x>
B.set multiple service < x>
C.set service <x> multiple
D.set policy from trust to untrust any any <AnotherService> permit
Correct Answers: A

19: Telnet management has been enabled on an interface in the untrust zone. What else should be configured to limit telnet access to the ScreenOS device from trusted management PCs?
A.Define a permitted IP address.
B.Define a policy from trust to untrust.
C.Define a trusted IP in the address table.
D.Define a manage IP address on this interface.
Correct Answers: A

20: You are looking at the event log of the responding device and it says, “Rejected an initial Phase 1 packet from an unrecognized peer gateway” What are three likely reasons for the failure? (Choose three.)
A.The peer ID is misconfigured.
B.The default gateway is missing.
C.The preshare keys are mismatched.
D.The gateway address is misconfigured.
E.The outgoing interface is misconfigured.
Correct Answers: A D E

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